This pattern is knit top down with raglan sleeves. The pattern is written as follows:
K1, inc1 (k to 1st before marker, inc 1, k1, slip m, k1, inc 1), knit to end. How can there only be 1 stitch to marker when it calls for inc 1, then k1 before slip m? The pattern is “Baby Sophisticate” from Ravelry.
Thanks for your expertise! Lorraine
Work a M1 or make one by picking up the bar between sts. That’ll leave the stitch before or after the marker for the k1.
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