Pattern math problem

Can you help?

I have a pattern that begins:
Cast on 3
R1: slip one, Make one, knit one… repeat to end
R2: slip one, purl one
repeat until you have 50 stitches

If I do this, won’t I end up slipping the same stitch two rows in succession? Can that be right? I must not get it. Can you enlighten me?

Laura :shrug:

When you slip at the beginning of a row, that becomes the end of the next row, so you won’t be slipping the same stitch twice–you’ll be alternating ends.


Can you post exactly what your pattern has?

The slipping a stitch at the beginning of a row provides a nice chain edge, as Ingrid has explained.

I’ve tried following the directions you’ve given up to the point where there are 19 stitches, and there are some wonky things…but I’m thinkin you may have left out a few bits of the directions. Is that possible?


I’m thinking row 2 should be - sl 1, purl across…? Or… there are * for the repeats. So the Row 1 should be sl 1, * M1, k1 - repeat to end. Yeah, maybe the whole pattern would be a good idea…


Cast on 3 sts.
Row 1: Slip 1, m 1, k 1 to end
Row 2: Slip 1, p to end
Repeat these rows until there are 50 stitches

in the abbreviations it reads:
M1… make 1 st: pick up the bar between 2 sts and k into the back of it


You or maybe the pattern…must be missing an asterisk! Otherwise the directions can’t work out as written. When you get to about the fourth row, there’s an odd stitch at the end.

If the directions read:
Row 1: Slip 1, *m 1, k 1, repeat from * to end.

the directions can work out because you’ll always wind up with an even number of sts.

Hope this helps.

BTW, I did a kfb (that’s knit front and back) on the first row 'cause there’s no bar there to pick up!

Good Luck! :wink: