Need help with M1

Hi everyone
I wanted to learn something new so I started a shawl. The pattern has a new stitch for me, M1, which after reading about it I didn’t think it was hard to do. Well, I did the Row 3 that had the first M1 stitch and thought I did it right only to get to the end and discover that I’m one stitch short. I’ve tried this row several times but come up with the same results. Obviously, I’m doing something wrong. I need help.

CO 20 stitches
The following is Row 3: K1M1(knit into front & back of st), PM, K2 tog 3 times, YO K1 6 times, K2 tog 3 times, PM, K1M1

By the way this is the first time I have posted a question so I hope I’m doing is right.

Thanks for your help.

What is the pattern, and where is it from, and have you searched for errata? (ie: corrections to the pattern.) Hard to tell without seeing the rows and knowing how many stitches you should have for each row; in some patterns, you’ll end up with more or less stitches in a row.

Also, M1 means you’re increasing, so you’re ending up with two stitches where you had one, so be sure you’re ending up with two stitches!

ETA: if you want to double check that you’re doing a M1 correctly, find the sort of M1 you’re doing at this page on’s video pages and watch the video!

Let’s see. I don’t have my knitting with me so I can’t CO for you…but reading it, I think I end up with 22 sts. 20 sts to start. First stitch, knit front and back, that makes two. PM is placing a marker, not purling, but perhaps you knew that. Then knit two together three times, so that makes three sts (you "lose 3 sts from the original 6 on the cast on). Yarn Over Knit 1 six times, means 12 sts (yarn over makes a stitch). k2tog again, so three. Place marker again. Last stitch knit front and back (2 sts). I hope that makes sense.

This pattern came form the 2008 Knitting calendar with Desiree Scales & Friends. Its a Lace Shawl (Sept 30).
The directions are CO 20 stitches, Row1: Knit. Row2 Purl. Also, I didn’t even know one could search for corrections to patterns. Where and how?

When I looked at this, it looked like the count is right.

CO 20 stitches

K1M1(knit into front & back of st) (1 st of CO); K2 tog 3 times (6 sts - total now 7 sts of CO); yo k1 6 times (6 sts - total now 13); K2 tog 3 times (6 sts - total now 19); and K1M1 (1 st - grand total of 20).

Perhaps that K1M1 is throwing you off? The way it’s worded is kind of funny. It looks like you are to do a K1, then M1 when in fact you are doing K1M1 in the same stitch – once at the beginning of the row and again at the end.

Hope this helps! Good Luck!

Like Globaltraveler said, M1 is increasing, so you will have two stitches instead of one…which would seem to indicate that you can’t end up with 20 sts again.

Is it this pattern? I don’t see errata for it, but since that’s a lace pattern, you may end up with extra stitches on the row which go back to 20 stitches later in the pattern (I get 22 stitches count on row 3 as well).

You might also be interested in this blog post! (If you’re on Ravelry, it’s here.)

No it didn’t look like the one on the blog post but yes I knew I’m suppose to end up with two extra stitches but my problem is I don’t have enough and I don’t know how to M1 at the end of the row. Hope that made sense.
Thanks so much for all your help!

Hmmm. Well, if you already know this, forgive me for telling you something you already know, but I just want to check:

When you do an M1, you’re increasing by one stitch [I]in the same stitch[/I]. So first you put your needle in the normal way and knit, but you don’t take the stitch off the left needle. Instead, you put your needle back into the same stitch, but putting the tip of the right needle from the top of the working stitch into the back side of the stitch, as if you’re purling backwards, and pull up another loop onto the right needle on the back loop of the working stitch. Now you have two loops on your right needle coming out of the same stitch. NOW you slip the working stitch off the left needle. This gives you one additional stitch on the row.

In your pattern, you do this on the first and the last stitch of the third row.

Is that what you’re doing?

BTW, that K1M1 thing is kind of confusing, as someone says above, because it would generally mean that you knit one, then you’d make a stitch in the bar between the first and second stitch…

Use a kfb instead of the standard M1. Many people use M1 to mean a general increase, there’s also a M1 which increases between stitches; kfb uses a stitch to inc. Your row should be done like this -
k1, kfb, pm, k2tog 3 times, (YO, k1) 6 times, k2tog 3 times, pm, k1, kfb.

and you will end up with 22 at the end of the row.

Sorry I couldn’t reply sooner. I got called away.
Thanks for your help. I’ll try again. Everytime I learn something new it taken a while to absorb then I have a V8 moment and it all comes together. Your comments were very helpful

I guess I really didn’t understand what to do. I’ll try again. Thanks for your help!

The thing about knitting that’s sooooo lurvely is that you, the knitter, can change whatever you like about a pattern, or not use a pattern at all. Most patterns will tell you what kind of M1/increase they want you to use, but not all of them will, leaving it up to you to choose which increase to use depending upon the effect you want. If you look at all of the kinds of increases available to us on the Increase page under the video tabs above, you can see that each increase and decrease method gives a slightly different result.

Your pattern specifically says to use what Amy (and Sue above) calls a KFB (Knit Front & Back). Take a look at the increase page – it shows a video for exactly how to do that increase. If you don’t like that increase, use another one!

Have fun!

Yes, kfb is the answer. I used it and everything came out perfect. I’m on my way. Thanks so very much!