Hi…I think that I know what this means, but it doesn’t seem to be coming out right…the pattern says: K1 ssk,*k9, sl2, k1, p2sso, rep from *…For the p2sso, do I slip 2 stitches over, then knit one and slip the two over the one that I just knitted?? Thanks, Linda Please explain in very simple terms…I’m easily confused…lol 
This is so weird - I’m lin/Linda too - feel like I’m talking to myself!
You’re right about the pattern, after the K9, slip 2 stitches, K1, then pass the 2 slipped stitches over the knit stitch. This was in the pattern I used for the “FO thanks to Maleknitter” I posted. I found it looked much better if I slipped and passed the 2 stitches one at a time, so I actually did a slip, slip, K1, pass over, pass over - make sense??
Hiya Lin,
You’re gonna be doing a double decrease there (sl2, k1, p2sso)
you’ll slip two stitches, knit one stitch n then take those two slipped stitches and pass them over the stitch you just knit. Hope that makes sense.
ETA: When you are passing those slipped stitches back over that knitted stitch, you can do them one at a time til you’ve gotten both of em passed or you pass em both at the same time. Either way is correct. Just as long as you’ve gotten both them lil suckers passed. LOL
Hi, Thank you to both of you! I will try this again…uh…I thought that I did it right the first time, since I did what I thought and what you guys confirmed is the right thing to do…I’m starting with 111 sts…I’m suppose to end up with 93…That isn’t what I was left with the first time I did this…I’ll try it again though…this sweater is a summer sweater, but at this point, I’ll be lucky if I wear it next summer…I can’t tell you how long it took me to get the back of this sweater right… I thought the front would be easier…silly me…lol…