When I do this as written, the last “set” of stitches does not go to the last asterisk and, instead, stops at the second yo. Is there an error in the pattern, or is this intentional in the design? I am very confused.
I wasn’t aware there was another way to do it other than using the SSK as a decrease. At least, when I searched on the glossary of this site, it seemed like a decrease was the only way to do it.
I did the same math you did, and came up with the same answer, but I guess I must be doing the SSK wrong. Do you leave the two slipped stitches on the left needle after you knit, and then use them as regular stitches again?
Actually, upon further reflection, I am still confused.
k2tog = 2st
k4 = 4st
yo = 1 st
k1 = 1st
yo = 1st
k4 = 4st
and ssk=2st.
All those together equal 15 stitches, not 13. :shrug:
So, if I CO54, after the first set of stitches and the selvedge, I will only have 38sts left, into which 13 does not divide evenly. I’m sure I’m missing something simple, but it’s really annoying me.
If you count the stitches you start with, count the decs as 2 and ignore the yo. When you count stitches at the end of the row, you have to count the decs as 1 st. You can’t do both.
So at the end of the row…
k2tog = 1st
k4 = 4st
yo = 1 st
k1 = 1st
yo = 1st
k4 = 4st
and ssk=1st.