Hi again YarnMommy,
Next row (WS) Sl 1, pl2, p2tog, p1, turn. Row 2 Sl 1. k3, SKP, k1, turn. Row 3 Sl 1, p4, p2tog, pl, turn. Row 4 Sl 1, k5, SKP, k1, turn. Cont in this way aleays having 1 more st before dec and SKP on RS rows, p2tog on WS rows until all sts have been worked - 14 sts remain.
OK, this is definitely a French heel. In each consecutive row, you work one more stitch than in the previous row. So your pattern is:
Next row (WS): Sl 1, purl to midpoint, p2, p2tog, p1, turn.
[eg if you have 20 stitches on your heel needle: slip 1, p9+2 (ie p11), p2tog, p1 turn]
Row 2: Sl 1. k3, SKP, k1, turn.
Row 3: Sl 1, p4, p2tog, pl, turn.
Row 4: Sl 1. k5, SKP, k1, turn.
Row 5: Sl 1, p6, p2tog, pl, turn.
Row 6: Sl 1. k7, SKP, k1, turn.
Row 7: Sl 1, p8, p2tog, pl, turn.
etc, until you have used up all stitches either side of the gaps.
I have bolded the numbers to show you what they mean by "Cont in this way always having 1 more st before dec"
When you've used up all those stitches either side of the gaps, you should be left with 14 stitches, and you will find that the fabric has formed into a heel.
I think it should work, but if my maths is wrong, everyone please let me know!
I hope that kind of makes sense! If you're not confident that this is right, get some scrap yarn, knit up a test heel flap and work the heel turn to see what happens.